Comment 1:
When did polygamy, as practiced by the Old Testament Israelites, end? Was it before the first century? What I'm trying to ask is if Christ's model of marriage is the same as our contemporary model of one man/one woman.
I am not sure when polygamy fell out of practice? My hunch is that it was more the exception than the rule for the Israelites. It was present with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but after that you don't hear too much about it. Perhaps the weight of having multiple sets of in-laws had something to do with this.
Generally, we say one man and one woman because that is how things were set up in the garden. God made Adam. God made Eve. And this was set up before the fall and before the creation was corrupted.
As far as whether or not our understanding is the same that Jesus had, is up for debate. The only reason I say this is because I think in our culture, we have a much lower view and understanding of marriage than existed in Jesus' day. I saw a show on TV the other night that featured wedding chapels in Vegas. And let me tell you, it made me sick to my stomach. I think we need to have a higher appreciation for what marriage is and the significance that it has in the life of a community.
Comment 2:
The Roman Catholic church considers marriage one of the sacraments. How can it be a sacrament since it does not involve the forgiveness of sins and wasn't instituted by Christ?
While I wish this was a more exciting answer, it is not. Roman Catholics do not have the same requirements for a sacrament as what Lutherans do. That is why they can consider marriage a sacrament, and we do not. I am not sure what their requirements are. For Lutherans it is to have a physical element and it has to be instituted by Jesus.
Thanks for continuing the conversation. I am excited to see where it takes us. God bless.
Sincerely,
Pastor CJ
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